Is that a consequence of the majority of available training data, or are they all massaged that way?
The uniformity of political leanings contrasted to the variability of IQ seems to indicate massage rather than training data, but I can't be sure.
Is that a consequence of the majority of available training data, or are they all massaged that way?
The uniformity of political leanings contrasted to the variability of IQ seems to indicate massage rather than training data, but I can't be sure.